In what ways was the Reformation the result of the ideas of the Renaissance?

How are Luther's Ninety-Five Theses indicative of a decline in the authority of the papacy and church and the unquestioned primacy of religion in 16th century society?

The Reformation, although a religious movement, brought with it elements that could be construed as secularizing tendencies, including not only its critiques of Medieval spirituality and religiosity, but also its view that clerical celibacy was not superior to lay religiosity and that any individual should read and understand the Bible in his or her own way. So, how did an essentially religious movement contribute to the secularization of European society?